Monday, December 13, 2004

Practice property exam

Alright, I've gone through the practice exam several times, and there are questions that I still cannot resolve on my own. What did people get for #1 and 38? I put c) for #1, and a) for #38. Is it just me, or are some of these questions really hard?

8 comments:

Anonymous said...

I have d for #1 and a for #38...
Also, I have no idea what I'm doing, so that's probably not much help.
M.

Anonymous said...

I agree with number one, but not number 38. Why did you think a?

Anonymous said...

A lot of those questions are worded really poorly, and Kurtz even said that some of them didn't test well (which probably means that no one could tell what the hell he was even asking). There were a lot that there could have been at least 2 answers for, and there was no way of figuring out the right one without more facts.

-Anna

hufflepuffer said...

I said a) for #38 because I thought that the B's interest was destroyed since by the very nature of the instrument it would never become possessory immediately upon termination of the preceding estate (b/c he has to purchase from A's executor, and A's executor is not ascertained until A's death, so there is a period of time when B cannot possible possess as soon as A dies), and I also thought that D's executory interest was indeed valid according to the Rule Against Perpetuities. So that ruled out b) for me. What does anyone else think?

Anonymous said...

for #38, I thought c/3 was the answer.
B has a springing executory interest. So, destructability is not an issue. I don't think it violates the rule against perpetuities b/c B is a validating life and will or will not purchase w/in his own lifetime.
thoughts...?

hufflepuffer said...

Ok, how do we know whether B has an invalid contingent remainder (since there is only one transferee, it is always a condition precedent, which implies it is a contingent remainder) or a springing executory interest? If B has a springing executory interest that I agree that c/3 is the right answer.

Anonymous said...

In this case I want to say that B can't have a remainder of any kind b/c he is taking on the happening of a condition (buying whiteacre) instead of a limitation (the end of A's life estate).
But more convincingly and easier to understand, springing executory interests are what happens after a "gap". They divest grantors. So, after A's life estate ends then O gets it and once B purchases then he'll get it.
Basically for it to be a remainder B would have to become possessory at the end of the life estate.
Or at least that's what I think...

hufflepuffer said...

Thanks! I get it now, that makes a lot more sense than what I was thinking before.